#4 There Are Two Ways to Get Sins Wiped OutThe following five scriptures lay the foundation stone of Christianity, namely, that Christ died for people's sins. Virtually every Christian denomination on earth accepts these Bible statements without question:
(Matthew 26:28) "....this means my ‘blood of the covenant,’ which is to be poured out in behalf of many for forgiveness of sins."
(John 1:29) "See, the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world!"
(Acts 5:31) "God exalted this one as Chief Agent and Savior to his right hand, to give repentance to Israel and forgiveness of sins."
(1 John 2:2) "And he is a propitiatory sacrifice for our sins, yet not for ours only but also for the whole world’s."
(Revelation 1:5) "To him that loves us and that loosed us from our sins by means of his own blood."
However, the WTBTS/Jehovah's Witnesses invalidate these scriptures by their false doctrine that a person's own death wipes out their past sins. They do this by interpreting the word "died" at Romans 6:7 as being literal rather than figurative. This is what their dogma says:
Watchtower May 15th 1982, pp. 8,9; "The Bible explains that at death a person is set free or released from any sins he committed. It says: "He who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7)
bh p. 214 par. 3 Judgment Day - "According to the apostle John’s vision, "scrolls were opened," and "the dead were judged out of those things written in the scrolls according to their deeds." (Revelation 20:12) Are these scrolls the record of people’s past deeds? No, the judgment will not focus on what people did before they died. How do we know that? The Bible says: "The one who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7) Those resurrected thus come to life with a clean slate, so to speak."
Is Romans 6:7 to be taken literally or figuratively? Are there two ways to wipe out sins, or just one? The w09 11/1 p. 21 says this - "When it comes to studying words found in the Bible, you also need to know the context in which the word appears."
By reading the surrounding verses - 2,4,6,8, & 11 - as well as the following scriptures - the true context and meaning of "died" is clearly proven to be figurative. Paul was counseling the Roman Christians in chapters 6, 7, & 8 about "dying" to their former, willful and sinful lives.
(Romans 7:4,9,10) "So, my brothers, YOU also were made dead to the Law through the body of the Christ; In fact, I was once alive apart from law; but when the commandment arrived, sin came to life again, but I died. And the commandment which was to life, this I found to be to death."
(Romans 8:10) "But if Christ is in union with YOU, the body indeed is dead on account of sin..."
(Ephesians 2:1) "Furthermore, [it is] YOU [God made alive] though YOU were dead in YOUR trespasses and sins,"
(Galatians 2:19) "As for me, through law I died toward law, that I might become alive toward God..."
(Colossians 2:13) "Furthermore, though YOU were dead in YOUR trespasses and in the uncircumcised state of YOUR flesh, [God] made YOU alive together with him.. . ." (Colossians 3:3) "For YOU died, and YOUR life has been hidden with the Christ in union with God." (2 Timothy 2:11) "Certainly if we died together, we shall also live together;" (Revelation 3:1) "‘I know your deeds, that you have the name that you are alive, but you are dead."
For anyone who is studying with J.W.'s, ask your study conductor these two questions:
"Why did Jesus have to die if a person's own death wipes out their sins?"
"Does this teaching not mean that a mass murderer who is killed by police, automatically receives forgiveness for his evil acts because he's been shot dead?"